Answer:
Keynes assumed that as disposable income changes, consumption changes in the same direction but by less.
Explanation:
As we know that when the income rises, the disposable income also rises also consumption but the same contains the MPC factor i.e. attributed and lower than or equivalent to 1.
In the case when there is a rise in the consumption due to the rise in the income so the rise in the consumption would be lower than the rise in the income
Therefore the above is the answer
